For instance, I was listening to a talk by Tim Staples about the Blessed Virgin Mary. He pointed out that in Luke's narrative of the Annunciation there in an interesting word play going on. Mary asks "How can this be, since I do not know man?" Every translation I am aware of (including "literal" translations) has the angel's reply in Luke 1:37 as:
37 For with God nothing will be impossible.”or very similar wording. But according to Tim, and I looked it up in a Greek interlinear Bible, the actual words written were
37 ὅτι οὐκ ἀδυνατήσει παρὰ τοῦ Θεοῦ πᾶν εἶπενSimilar meaning, but it gives quite a different emphasis to Mary's reply "Let it be done to me according to your word."
or37 for not will be impossible with God every word said.
or37 for every word of God's is possible.